[Tom]

Rtech it's got do with ur 60foot timings or launch skills

[Rtech]

I think your equation holds wright only when the speed is constant. Accelelration is never constant, it keeps changing.

Yup, thats exactly it!

Usually i've seen that a bike doing the same 1/4 mile time as that of a car has a slightly faster speed reading.

That's 'coz they accelerate so much faster than cars...upto a given velocity, after which a car with it's superior aerodynamics and more outright power would move ahead.

[Tom]

Originally Posted by Shan2nu

Usually i've seen that a bike doing the same 1/4 mile time as that of a car has a slightly faster speed reading. Shan2nu

it's the other way around dude

[Rtech]

Originally Posted by Tom

Rtech it's got do with ur 60foot timings or launch skills

I mean't with all other factors being the same.

For example, bike "A" does it in 10.50 @ 215kmph
Bike "B" may do it in 10.50 @ 220kmph.

Which bike is faster and which is quicker??

[Tom]

keeeping 'ALL' factors ditto...i doubt thats possible

[Rtech]

well, the only variable would be rate of acceleration. I know it's impossible to have ALL other factors constant, but this is something I was just thinkin about.

Even discounting the other factors, I'm sure you must have come across results where the timings are the same but the speeds are different. If their time's are the same, that means they should cross the same distance with the same speed.

[Tom]

acceleration? you said 'ALL' factors.
'riding skill' is probably the only factor you cant measure or keep constant

[Rtech]

tom, I go back to my original question:

Here's a question: When 2 vehicles clock exactly the same time in the quarter mile, theoratically their speeds at the end should be the same as well right, considering that the equation Speed=Distance / Time would provide the same result? How come that doesn't hold true?

How can they both clock the SAME time but DIFFERENT speeds?

What you are saying about the launch technique would thereby produce different times as well as speeds.

[Shan2nu]

Actually Rtech is right, technically it should match.

Lets take this example.

Bike covers 400m in 10.5 secs.
That's an average speed of 137.14 kmph.
137.14kmph = 38.09 ms/sec
So, at the rate of 38.09 ms/sec that vehicle would cover a distance of 400m in 10.50 secs!!

Shan2nu

[Tom]

Rtech what im saying is....keeping all the factors same...then if their is a diff then it has to be the diff in riding skill/style...otherwise how can one explain it?

[Tom]

also if it's in india then there is the question of reaction time...which is where skill comes into play

[Shan2nu]

Rtech what im saying is....keeping all the factors same...then if their is a diff then it has to be the diff in riding skill/style...otherwise how can one explain it?

What about diff in distance? What if the gear used to measure the drag strip was wrong? Even a diff of a meter can change things. And then there's always the chance that the speed gun used for that event maynot be as accurate as the one used in another event.

But in a way it's possible. Imagine a 2 cars accelerating from a starting point. Car A takes off pretty fast and gains atleast 2 car lenghts over the car B, but then, car B wit it's bigger engine capacity begins to play catch up and by the time they cross the 1/4 mile mark, they both finish at the same time.

Now, to catch up with car A, car B will have to have a greater speed than car A. So, even though they finished at the same time, car B had a greater terminal speed. It all leads to my first statement that rate of acceleration (atleast in cars and bikes) is never constant.

There's this vid (best motoring) of a drag race between a white GT2 and a red F40 where the GT2 takes off in the begining and gains a fair lead over the F40 but then the F40 starts catching up. The GT2 beats the F40 to the 1/4 mile but, as they reach the 1Km mark, you can see that the F40 is right next to the GT2, the times are displayed at the same moment and imediately you see the F40 overtake the GT2.

Now, this is the terminal speed they both clocked (at the same point).
GT2 - 244.27kmph
F40 - 260.86kmph

Shan2nu

[Rtech]

If the times are the same, shouldn't the speed be the same as well??

I mean, say for example a guy has a bad start but is on a much more powerful bike, he could make up the difference in lost time to cross the line at the same time as the other guy. But theoratically, their speeds should be the same as well.

How can 2 vehicles cover the exact same distance in the exact same time, but at different speeds?

Lets say bike can cover 350 meters in 5 secs, leaving him a full 5.5 secs to cover the balance 50 meters. That final 50 meters could then be covered at maybe even 100 mph, hence the speed as taken at the finish would egister 100mph, but the total time maybe the same 10.5 sec.

For example, bike "A" does it in 10.50 @ 215kmph
Bike "B" may do it in 10.50 @ 220kmph.

Which bike is faster and which is quicker??

So that means bike A would be a quicker bike as it probably reaches 100kmph faster than bike B, but bike B has more top end, hence claws back that time at the end and registers a higher top speed, but the same elapsed time.

Lol Shan, I was writing the same thing at the same time as you, you got it up 3 mins ahead of me!

Hey Tom, I was not talking about any particular bike or place, just discussing the principle behind it.

[Jaggu]

................. and i have no clue what it is...

[Shan2nu]

So that means bike A would be a quicker bike as it probably reaches 100kmph faster than bike B, but bike B has more top end, hence claws back that time at the end and registers a higher top speed, but the same elapsed time.

Yup, that's why they have the same time but diff speeds.

Shan2nu