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Originally Posted by humyum I beg to disagree with anyone here who says you can get the best acceleration by revving a diesel engine to 4 k + rpm's. If you rev till 4 k in 2nd gear, 3rd gear and 4th gear after the engine is out of the peak torque in case of the I20 must be around 3200 to 3400 you are just hitting a wall and slowing a progress without achieving much out of it.
For best acceleration its imperative to shift near the end of the torque band so that when you shift to a higher gear you are again in the meat of the torque band to make the most of the 21 kgm that the I20 produces.
For example if I revved my Swift diesel till 4 k in every gear, sure i ll be doing around 70 in 2nd and 100+ in 3rd but i ll be slower than what I could have achieved if I had shifted from 2nd to 3rd at around 55 and 3rd to 4th at around 85 and so on. |
But what about the torque multiplying effect of the gears? AFAIK, both the Gearbox and the differential multiply the Torque going to the wheels. I've posted about the same on the first page.
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Originally Posted by figo_mba I agree. Since there is a lot of compression needed the parts are heavy and so at higher rpms the torque losses are also higher. Also a longer stroke (than gasoline engine) prevents the diesel engine being more rev happy. Long stroke mean more distance between TDC and BDC and so there is a certain distance to be covered for every stroke. As revs increases diesel engine just cannot cope because time is just not there for all the stroked. Even the fuel pump has limitation if I am not wrong.
Oh and the torque losses at higher revs. I think this adds to the wear and tear at these rpms. |
AFAIK, for two engines of the same displacement and technology, longer stroked, smaller bore engines rev a little less than a shorter stroke larger bore engine. I'm not good with the details at all but I think it had something to do with the piston speed and thermodynamic efficiency. So, if the speed of the moving parts remains the same - except that the cycle occurs more often in a short stroke engine, will this contribute to higher wear and tear? Can anyone please explain the physics behind this?
Also, what are the torque losses at higher rpms that you are referring to? And how do these losses contribute to wear and tear directly? Please correct me if I'm wrong but here's how I understand it -
1. Inertial losses in engine - These are losses occurring before the crank. But since torque is measured at the crank, these are accounted for.
2. Losses in the drivetrain - Vary widely with engine, capacity, gearbox, final drive, drive (FWD, RWD etc.). According to Rototest, these average at 7% for FWD cars and 9% for RWD cars when torque is measured at wheel hubs. Although, I'd assume that losses for most indian cars would be higher as they have a lower horsepower rating and some loss is an absolute values. These should increase with rpms but I'd think the difference would be negligible (don't have any concrete evidence for this statement though)
3. Steady-state vs Acceleration - Measurements under acceleration will give lower results than measurements under steady state. This is because under acceleration, some energy will have to be expended to overcome inertia. I would think these would increase with rpms but some evidence suggests otherwise.
White Papers - Rototest Research Institute
The graph we need is in page 2 of part 2.
In any case, I don't see any significant increase in torque losses at higher rpms. Also, I don't see any direct link between torque losses of any kind and wear and tear. I could be very wrong though. I'll be happy to be corrected. Thanks
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Originally Posted by Kimified My average shift rpm is between 2.8 - 3k rpm. I do go upto 3.5 and 4k many times though (Like when i want to get away faster of the line from a signal or while overtaking on a highway). But its still pretty high compared to what other people shift at. |
I drive my Vista TDi the same way. I shift at about 4600rpm as the torque drop off is pretty steep beyond that point.
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Originally Posted by Kimified Yeah. I am out of the Torque band. But i still feel the car pulling faster than what it would if i would have shifted it to a lower gear. |
I do believe you are right. This would be because a larger gear (as in 1st gear ratio > 2nd gear ratio) acts as a torque multiplier. Hence, more torque would be going to the wheels at high rpms in a lower gear when compared to the peak torque band in a lower gear. Actually, to get the best acceleration, you have to go till the redline. This is almost always true except in case two gear ratios are very close to each other.
Take a look at this picture
Notice where the lines between one gear and the next cross. That's the best place for you to shift to get the most out of your engine.
The original document is here. I made it as an experiment
https://docs.google.com/spreadsheet/...l=en_US#gid=23 Quote:
Originally Posted by Added_flavor To add to kimified's query, why is it that it is advised not to rev hard in first gear in a diesel? Also I have noticed, when the engine is revved above 2-2.5k in first gear, it kinda slots hard into 2nd. What is the reason for this? |
I've never heard this before. Where did you read this advice? I'd like to know the reasoning behind this.
And, what exactly do you mean by "slots hard into 2nd". I could be wrong but one possible reason is that it takes longer for the engine revs to drop to the right rpms in 2nd