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Originally Posted by huntrz Well what Jaguar said is actually correct. This is what I can recall from my Economics class-
Lets say 3 guys A, B and C have their account with XYZ bank.
A has deposited Rs 100 in his account. B needs Rs 90 loan to buy land from C.
There is certain ratio given out by RBI(I guess Cash Reserve Ratio) acconding to which the bank has to maintain minimum of that much percentage of all the deposits it has and cannot loan it out. Lets say CRR is 10% then XYZ has Rs 90 (100- CRR% of Rs 100= 90) to be lent out as loan.
So XYZ lends Rs90 as loan to B. B pays it to C to buy his land.
C get Rs 90 and deposits it in his account in XYZ. So the bank again has Rs 90. Reducing the CRR again it can lend Rs 81(90 - CRR% of 90= 90-9=81) to another guy D who pays it to E to buy a Flat. E deposits Rs 81 in his account. Again the bank retains 8.1(10% of 81) and lends Rs 72.9(81-8.1) and so on.
So with Rs 100 of deposit the bank has actually made 90+81+.. in the market by means of lending.
Also if the deposit rate is 5% and lending rate is 10 percent the bank needs to pay Rs 5 to A and gets Rs 9+8.1 from B and C as interest on the loan. |
you are forgetting that the lending is increasing not with just the 100 Rs, but the lands too. if these assets (lands) were not there, it will be impossible to carry on this transactions. In other words, the Rs 90+81+.... is loaned out of "Rs 100 + all the lands combined". At this time, bank virtually owns the lands thru the loans. How it works in real world? see below.
Banks will not just give cash to anybody, without a proof of where it's going to be invested, like land. And this eliminates the need of "virtually" in the previous paragraph. It's more of accounting/legal measures to avoid such convoluted misuse. You can build an economic question on this scenario though. Quote:
The bank needs to pay interest to C & E as well.
Also, there is no guarantee C & E will deposit their money in the same bank. Quite frankly, this is a meaningless example.
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we can discuss an economic question with assumptions. Let's assume there is only one bank in the system. Quote:
I can also give such examples.
- A deposits Rs. 100 in the Bank
- Bank invests Rs. 100 in a MF.
- Some other person sells Rs. 100 worth of MF at the same time.
- They also invest Rs. 100 in the same bank & the bank buys MF again
& this goes on.
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Let's stop at this point. Remember, in the beginning A had 100 Rs, and another person had MFs worth Rs 100. There really were 200 Rs in the economy which have been invested in MF thru the bank now. If you are including next person, be sure to add his initial worth of MF in the total economy to start with.
ok, I went further down to read. Quote:
There is one more angle to it. I remember reading in a 'Rich Dad - Poor Dad' book, that if you deposit $100 in a bank, the bank can legally give a loan of some $700. So if the bank had loaned this money at 10% interest, it would earn $70 minus the $4 that it owes you for your $100. So, total profit of $66.
But, if it were to invest in MFs, it could only invest $100 and the effective gain would be only 15-4 = $11.
This is for US, but I suppose something similar would hold true for India as well.
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This doesn't make any sense at all. Where does the remaining 600 come from?
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exactly, if bank had an extra 600 in it's liquid reserves to loan you, it could as well invest 700$ in the MF. wanna calculate the total gain?
Last edited by vivekiny2k : 20th September 2010 at 08:31.
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